Question1: The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
Question2: Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
Question3: The project team is using their current information, abilities, and experience to achieve project objectives; the team is also developing new experiences, and the project manager is ensuring that the team is documenting new learnings in order to contribute to organizational knowledge.
In which process is the project team and project manager involved?
Question4: In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
Question5: A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
Question6: Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
Question7: A contractor has provided hands-on training to a team member on new equipment that has been purchased as part of the project. The team member has acquired key insight and experience on the new equipment.
What is this an example of?
Question8: Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
Question9: Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
Question10: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
Question11: Plan-do-check-act is also known as:
Question12: A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current:
Planned value = 30
Actual cost = 35
Earned value = 28
Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?
Question13: Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?
Question14: When should quality planning be performed?
Question15: Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
Question16: An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
Question17: When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
Question18: Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
Question19: Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?
Question20: Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
Question21: To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?
Question22: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
Question23: A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
Question24: If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefit is that:
Question25: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
Question26: The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:
Question27: Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
Question28: A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
Question29: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
Question30: Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
Question31: What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
Question32: Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?
Question33: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
Question34: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
Question35: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
Question36: What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question37: A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:
Question38: Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
Question39: Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
Question40: What are the project management processes associated with project quality management?
Question41: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
Question42: Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
Question43: Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
Question44: Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
Question45: A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
Question46: The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?
Question47: The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
Question48: Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
Question49: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
Question50: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
Question51: Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
Question52: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
Question53: A project lifecycle is defined as:
Question54: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
Question55: The project manager has the following information about the estimated duration for an activity:
Most likely [tM] - 15 days
Pessimistic [tP] - 20 days
Optimistic [tO] - 10 days
What is the estimated duration of this activity, according to the triangular distribution technique?
Question56: How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects than in traditional projects?
Question57: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
Question58: What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?
Question59: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
Question60: The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
Question61: Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?
Question62: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
Question63: Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
Question64: Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
Question65: Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
Question66: A project is in the planning phase. The project manager is considering different elements that may influence or constrain the project.
Which of the following internal enterprise environmental factors should the project manager consider?
Question67: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
Question68: The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks.
Which tools and techniques might help in this process?
Question69: An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
Question70: Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
Question71: Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?
Question72: A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
Question73: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
Question74: Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
Question75: Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
Question76: A project team member is estimating the cost of an activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?
Question77: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
Question78: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
Question79: Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at various points during the product life cycle such as:
Question80: The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment.
How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?
Question81: What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question82: The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?
Question83: Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?
Question84: Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?
Question85: Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
Question86: A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks.
Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
Question87: The Process Group in which the internal and external stakeholders interact and influence the overall outcome of the project is the:
Question88: Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
Question89: The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
Question90: Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
Question91: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
Question92: Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
Question93: The product scope description is used to:
Question94: The project governance approach should be described in the:
Question95: Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
Question96: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
Question97: Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
Question98: Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
Question99: Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
Question100: Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
Question101: Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?
Question102: Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
Question103: The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:
Question104: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
Question105: Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
Question106: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
Question107: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
Question108: Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
Question109: "Tailoring" is defined as the:
Question110: Quality metrics are an output of which process?
Question111: Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
Question112: A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
Question113: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
Question114: Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
Question115: Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
Question116: Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
Question117: Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
Question118: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?
Question119: A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
Question120: At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
Question121: A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members.
Which technique can result in a win-win situation?
Question122: What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?
Question123: Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
Question124: Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question125: Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
Question126: A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
Question127: How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
Question128: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
Question129: What is the purpose of the project management process groups?
Question130: Which of the following is an example of push communication?
Question131: Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
Question132: Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
Question133: Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
Question134: The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan. Which elements may be included in this plan?
Question135: Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
Question136: Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
Question137: Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
Question138: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
Question139: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
Question140: Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
Question141: Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
Question142: Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
Question143: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
Question144: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
Question145: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
Question146: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
Question147: A project manager is considering whether or not to procure a new vendor. What can the project manager use to determine a make-or-buy decision?
Question148: The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
Question149: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
Question150: Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
Question151: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
Question152: The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
Question153: The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
Question154: External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
Question155: Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
Question156: The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?
Question157: Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
Question158: Design of experiments (DOE) should be used during which of the following processes?
Question159: Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
Question160: During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
Question161: Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
Question162: A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
Question163: The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:
Question164: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
Question165: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
Question166: Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
Question167: Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
Question168: Change request status updates are an output of which process?
Question169: A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project. Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?
Question170: The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers' needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
Question171: Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
Question172: The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
Question173: Which statement about accepted deliverables is correct?
Question174: The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X.
The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
Question175: The activity of tailoring is necessary because:
Question176: The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
Question177: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
Question178: Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
Question179: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
Question180: The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
Question181: Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?
Question182: Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
Question183: Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
Question184: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
Question185: When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
Question186: An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
Question187: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
Question188: Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?
Question189: Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
Question190: Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?
Question191: Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?
Question192: Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
Question193: The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
Question194: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
Question195: Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
Question196: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:
Question197: While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
Question198: An output of the Validate Scope process is:
Question199: Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
Question200: Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
Question201: In which project cost management process is work performance data an output?
Question202: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?
Question203: Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
Question204: Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
Question205: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
Question206: What process determines which risks might affect the project?
Question207: When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
Question208: Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
Question209: Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
Question210: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question211: Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?
Question212: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
Question213: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
Question214: Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
Question215: The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:
Question216: The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
Question217: Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
Question218: An input to the Create WBS process is a:
Question219: Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
Question220: The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
Question221: Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
Question222: The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
Question223: What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
Question224: What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
Question225: A junior team member has been promoted to the position of project manager. The first task to execute is the Quality Management Plan.
Which tools and techniques will help the project manager to complete this task?
Question226: A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
Question227: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
Question228: What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
Question229: Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
Question230: What is a tool to improve team performance?
Question231: A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.
Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?
Question232: Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:
Question233: The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
Question234: What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
Question235: Which characteristic is unique to project work and does not apply to operational work?
Question236: Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
Question237: Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
Question238: During project selection, which factor is most important?
Question239: Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the Integrated Change Control process?
Question240: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
Question241: What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
Question242: An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
Question243: Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
Question244: An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance. Which type of communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?
Question245: Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?
Question246: Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
Question247: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
Question248: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
Question249: A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.
Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?
Question250: Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
Question251: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
Question252: Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
Question253: Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
Question254: Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
Question255: Which set of competencies should a project manager have?
Question256: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
Question257: Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
Question258: In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
Question259: Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?
Question260: The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:
Question261: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
Question262: Which project documents can determine the budget?
Question263: Portfolio Management is management of:
Question264: Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?
Question265: Which of the following methods of performance review examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Question266: Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question267: Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
Question268: Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?
Question269: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
Question270: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
Question271: Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
Question272: Which is a difference between leadership and management?
Question273: Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
Question274: Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
Question275: The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
Question276: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
Question277: Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
Question278: A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.
Which process is the project manager executing?
Question279: Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
Question280: Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
Question281: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
Question282: Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
Question283: Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question284: The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
Question285: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
Question286: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question287: Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
Question288: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
Question289: When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
Question290: Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
Question291: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
Question292: Which are the competing constraints that a project manager should address when tailoring a project?
Question293: If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst- case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
Question294: An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
Question295: A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?
Question296: The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
Question297: Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?
Question298: The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
Question299: Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
Question300: The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?
Question301: Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
Question302: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
Question303: The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
Question304: At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
Question305: Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?
Question306: Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
Question307: Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
Question308: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
Question309: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
Question310: Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
Question311: The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
Question312: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
Question313: What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
Question314: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
Question315: How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
Question316: After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
Question317: An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
Question318: Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
Question319: Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
Question320: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question321: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
Question322: Inputs to the Define Activities process include:
Question323: To which process is work performance information an input?
Question324: One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
Question325: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
Question326: Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
Question327: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
Question328: An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
Question329: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
Question330: An output of the Create WBS process is:
Question331: Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
Question332: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
Question333: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
Question334: A project can be defined as a:
Question335: Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
Question336: Which items are components of a project management plan?
Question337: The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
Question338: What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?
Question339: A project manager is updating their CV or resume and realizes that they need to improve skills related to expertise in the industry and organizational knowledge. Which dimension of PMI's Talent Triangle best relates to this need to improve?
Question340: The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.
What are these elements called?
Question341: Cost of quality (COQ) refers to total cost of/to:
Question342: Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
Question343: The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
Question344: Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
Question345: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
Question346: Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
Question347: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
Question348: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
Question349: A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?
Question350: Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
Question351: Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?
Question352: Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
Question353: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
Question354: What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan in a project with a lot of technical uncertainty?
Question355: The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:
Question356: Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
Question357: An output of the Manage Project Team process is:
Question358: Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
Question359: Which item is a cost of conformance?
Question360: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
Question361: What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
Question362: Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
Question363: When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:
Question364: Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?
Question365: Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
Question366: After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager identifies some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and time for the required rework.
How would the project manager define these extra costs?
Question367: A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
Question368: The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
Question369: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
Question370: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?
Question371: In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?
Question372: A project manager is assigned to a strategic project. Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.
Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
Question373: A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?
Question374: A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
Question375: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
Question376: Which document describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results?
Question377: Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
Question378: A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement of work (SOW) that is not precise.
Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?
Question379: Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
Question380: Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
Question381: Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
Question382: Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
Question383: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
Question384: Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
Question385: A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
Question386: A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
Question387: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
Question388: Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
Question389: Which conflict resolution technique is based on bringing some degree of satisfaction to all parties?
Question390: Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
Question391: Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?
Question392: Resource calendars are included in the:
Question393: Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
Question394: An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
Question395: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
Question396: Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
Question397: Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
Question398: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
Question399: The diagram below is an example of a:
Question400: An input of the Create WBS process is:
Question401: Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
Question402: A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
Question403: When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
Question404: Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
Question405: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
Question406: Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?
Question407: Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?
Question408: Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
Question409: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
Question410: The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
Question411: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance will continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
Question412: Which components of the project can be updated as a result of managing stakeholder engagement?
Question413: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
Question414: What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
Question415: Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
Question416: The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
Question417: The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should the project manager consult?
Question418: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
Question419: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
Question420: Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?
Question421: The three processes of Project Cost Management are:
Question422: Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
Question423: If you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?
Question424: Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question425: Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
Question426: Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question427: One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:
Question428: Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?
Question429: Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
Question430: Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
Question431: Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
Question432: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
Question433: Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
Question434: Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
Question435: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
Question436: Which standard examines an enterprise's project management process capabilities?
Question437: A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
Question438: Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
Question439: The project manager released a report. A few stakeholders express the view that the report should not have been directed to them.
Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?
Question440: Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
Question441: Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
Question442: Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
Question443: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
Question444: Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
Question445: An element of the project scope statement is:
Question446: The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
Question447: Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?
Question448: Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
Question449: According to PMBOK, the definition of Plan Risk Management is:
Question450: Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
Question451: Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?
Question452: When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
Question453: What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
Question454: Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
Question455: Project management processes ensure the:
Question456: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
Question457: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
Question458: In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?
Question459: The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
Question460: As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost.
What should be used to calculate the forecast?
Question461: Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:
Question462: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
Question463: When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?
Question464: Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
Question465: Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?
Question466: Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
Question467: Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?
Question468: In project management, a temporary project can be:
Question469: An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
Question470: Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?
Question471: An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
Question472: Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
Question473: Typical outcomes of a project include:
Question474: Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
Question475: Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:
Question476: Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question477: A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the importance of creating the project management office?
Question478: What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
Question479: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
Question480: Which of the following is a project constraint?
Question481: Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
Question482: With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?
Question483: What causes replanning of the project scope?
Question484: During which process group is the quality policy determined?
Question485: Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:
Question486: Which of the following are inputs for the Plan Quality Management processes?
Question487: The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
Question488: A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
Question489: Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?
Question490: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
Question491: An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:
Question492: The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:
Question493: Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?
Question494: A reward can only be effective if it is:
Question495: Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?
Question496: In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with agile methodology.
A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage.
How will the project team determine project cost?
Question497: When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
Question498: Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
Question499: In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?
Question500: Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:
Question501: Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
Question502: Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
Question503: Which of the following documents are created as part of Project Integration Management?
Question504: In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
Question505: A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?
Question506: What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
Question507: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
Question508: During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?
Question509: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?
Question510: Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
Question511: Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?
Question512: Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?